Quiz-leads: May 2025

Monday, May 19, 2025

Why NATO can lead to conflict

Saturday, May 10, 2025

In political science, the state is a fundamental concept that refers to a political organization with the authority to govern a defined territory and population. Here's a clearer breakdown of what the state is and how it differs from society and government:

Definition of the State:

The state is a political and legal entity that possesses the following key elements:

Defined territory – a clear geographical area.
Permanent population – people living within that territory.
Government – an institution through which laws are made and enforced.
Sovereignty – the authority to govern without external interference.
Recognition – acceptance by other states in the international system (especially relevant in international law).

A classic definition comes from political theorist Max Weber, who described the state as:

“a human community that (successfully) claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory.”

Difference Between State, Society, and Government:

Concept	Definition	Key Characteristics
State	A political entity with sovereignty, territory, population, and government.	Legal authority, monopoly on force, continuity.
Society	A complex network of relationships among people living in a community.	Includes culture, economy, families, religion.
Government	The organization or body through which state authority is exercised.	Temporary, changes with elections or leadership.

Key Differences:

State vs. Government:
- The state is permanent and abstract; the government is temporary and practical.
- Example: The United States (state) continues regardless of whether Biden or Trump is in office (government).
State vs. Society:
- The state is about political control and authority; society is broader and includes all human relationships, not just political ones.
- The state may regulate society, but society includes both state and non-state actors (like churches, businesses, families).

In Summary:

The state is a sovereign authority over a territory and people.
The government is the tool or agency through which the state acts.
Society is the broader collection of individuals and institutions that exist within or across states.

Friday, May 9, 2025

Polity Quiz 5

1. How many Articles were there in the original Constitution of India?
A. 470
B. 22
C. 395
D. 52
Answer: C. 395

2. As of 2019, how many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B. 12

3. Which part of the Constitution contains the division of powers between the Centre and the states?
A. First Schedule
B. Article 370
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Directive Principles
Answer: C. Seventh Schedule

4. How many subjects are there in the Union List as per the current Constitution?
A. 66
B. 97
C. 98
D. 52
Answer: C. 98

5. In case of a conflict between the Centre and a State on a Concurrent List subject, whose law prevails?
A. State law
B. Supreme Court
C. President
D. Central law
Answer: D. Central law

6. The Constitution of India is considered the ________ Constitution in the world.
A. Shortest
B. Oldest
C. Most flexible
D. Lengthiest
Answer: D. Lengthiest

7. What happens to laws that do not conform to the Constitution?
A. They are enforced regardless
B. They are passed with amendments
C. They are declared invalid
D. They go to referendum
Answer: C. They are declared invalid

8. Who has the power of judicial review in India?
A. Prime Minister
B. High Courts and Supreme Court
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Attorney General
Answer: B. High Courts and Supreme Court

9. What majority is required by Parliament to change the name or boundaries of a state?
A. Special majority
B. Absolute majority
C. Two-thirds majority
D. Simple majority
Answer: D. Simple majority

10. What phrase best describes the Indian Federation according to the Constitution?
A. Union of Equal States
B. Indestructible Union of Destructible States
C. Indestructible States under Indestructible Union
D. Loose Union of Autonomous States
Answer: B. Indestructible Union of Destructible States

11. Which list includes subjects on which both Centre and State can legislate?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Residuary List
D. Concurrent List
Answer: D. Concurrent List

12. Parliament can legislate on State List subjects if:
A. Lok Sabha passes a special bill
B. Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in national interest
C. President declares emergency
D. Supreme Court issues an order
Answer: B. Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in national interest

Section B

1. How did K.C. Wheare describe the Constitution of India?
A) Unitary with federal spirit
B) Quasi-federal
C) Purely federal
D) Confederation of states
Answer: B) Quasi-federal

2. According to K.C. Wheare, what kind of state is the Indian Union?
A) Federal state with minor unitary features
B) A union of sovereign states
C) Unitary state with subsidiary federal features
D) A decentralized union
Answer: C) Unitary state with subsidiary federal features

3. What term did Morris Jones use to describe Indian federalism?
A) Unitary decentralization
B) Fragmented federalism
C) Bargaining federalism
D) Symmetrical federalism
Answer: C) Bargaining federalism

4. Ivor Jennings characterized Indian federalism as:
A) Centralized federation
B) Federation with a strong centralising tendency
C) Loose confederation of states
D) Cooperative federalism
Answer: B) Federation with a strong centralising tendency

5. According to Ivor Jennings, what does the Indian Constitution aim to enforce?
A) Administrative supremacy
B) State dominance
C) National unity and growth
D) Autonomy of the Union
Answer: C) National unity and growth

6. What type of federalism did Granville Austin attribute to India?
A) Fiscal federalism
B) Coercive federalism
C) Cooperative federalism
D) Asymmetrical federalism
Answer: C) Cooperative federalism

7. According to Granville Austin, how are the state governments treated in Indian federalism?
A) As mere administrative agencies
B) As powerless entities
C) As strong and independent units
D) Not reduced to administrative agencies
Answer: D) Not reduced to administrative agencies

8. What unique kind of federation did Granville Austin claim India represents?
A) Traditional federal model
B) A new kind of federation to meet India’s peculiar needs
C) A union of disjointed states
D) A colonial federation
Answer: B) A new kind of federation to meet India’s peculiar needs

9. What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar say the Indian Constitution establishes?
A) Single centralized governance
B) Confederation of states
C) Dual polity
D) Monarchical governance
Answer: C) Dual polity

10. According to Ambedkar, from where do both the Union and the States derive their powers?
A) Parliament
B) Supreme Court
C) Constitution
D) The President
Answer: C) Constitution

11. What was Dr. Ambedkar’s remark about the flexibility of the Constitution?
A) Rigidly federal
B) Only unitary
C) Can be both unitary and federal
D) Primarily confederal
Answer: C) Can be both unitary and federal

12. What did the Supreme Court declare in the Bommai case regarding the Constitution?
A) Unitary in spirit
B) Federalism is its basic feature
C) Purely administrative framework
D) Parliament is supreme
Answer: B) Federalism is its basic feature

Thursday, May 8, 2025

Polity Quiz 4

1. On what basis have political scientists classified governments into unitary and federal?
A. Size of the country
B. Economic development
C. Nature of relations between national and regional governments
D. Population density

Answer: C. Nature of relations between national and regional governments

2. In a unitary government, where are the powers primarily vested?
A. In both national and regional governments
B. In regional governments only
C. In international treaties
D. In the national government

Answer: D. In the national government

3. Which of the following countries has a federal model of government?
A. France
B. Japan
C. Brazil
D. Norway

Answer: C. Brazil

4. What is another term used for the national government in a federal system?
A. Royal government
B. Federal or Central government
C. Supreme Council
D. Constitutional monarchy

Answer: B. Federal or Central government

5. What does the Latin word ‘foedus’, the root of the term 'federation', mean?
A. Nation
B. State
C. Treaty or agreement
D. Constitution

Answer: C. Treaty or agreement

6. What are the regional units called in Switzerland within a federal system?
A. States
B. Cantons
C. Provinces
D. Republics

Answer: B. Cantons

Section B

1. A federation can be formed in how many ways?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B. Two

2. Which of the following is an example of a federation formed by integration?
A. Canada
B. India
C. United States
D. United Kingdom
Answer: C. United States

3. When a big unitary state is converted into a federation by granting autonomy, it is an example of federation by:
A. Integration
B. Treaty
C. Disintegration
D. Separation
Answer: C. Disintegration

4. In which year was the United States federation formed?
A. 1867
B. 1789
C. 1776
D. 1787
Answer: D. 1787

5. How many original states did the US have at the time of its formation?
A. 10
B. 13
C. 50
D. 4
Answer: B. 13

6. The Canadian federation was formed in which year?
A. 1787
B. 1865
C. 1867
D. 1871
Answer: C. 1867

7. According to the Constitution of India, what is the official term used to describe the country?
A. Federation of States
B. Confederation
C. Republic of India
D. Union of States
Answer: D. Union of States

8. Who explained the significance of the term ‘Union of States’ in the Indian Constitution?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Patel
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: C. B.R. Ambedkar

9. Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution adopt a federal system?
A. To promote international relations
B. Due to historical precedent
C. Due to large size and socio-cultural diversity
D. To encourage foreign investment
Answer: C. Due to large size and socio-cultural diversity

10. What does the term ‘Union of States’ imply about the Indian federation?
A. States can leave the federation freely
B. It was formed by treaty among states
C. It is an indestructible union with no secession rights
D. It has a weak central government
Answer: C. It is an indestructible union with no secession rights

11. The Indian federal system is primarily based on which country's model?
A. American
B. Canadian
C. British
D. Australian
Answer: B. Canadian

12. Which of the following is NOT a reason the Indian federation resembles the Canadian federation?
A. Formation through disintegration
B. Preference to the term 'Union'
C. States formed a treaty
D. Centralizing tendency
Answer: C. States formed a treaty

Section C

US Political System Quiz 1

Section A

1. What is the purpose of government according to the passage?
A. To make money
B. To organize society under rules and institutions
C. To enforce religious beliefs
D. To promote political campaigns
Correct Answer: B. To organize society under rules and institutions

2. Why should we study government?
A. To get elected
B. To memorize laws
C. To participate in an informed way
D. To avoid paying taxes
Correct Answer: C. To participate in an informed way

3. What does the term “politics” describe?
A. Court decisions
B. Distribution of power in government
C. History of government
D. Economic plans
Correct Answer: B. Distribution of power in government

4. What is the minimum age to serve in the House of Representatives?
A. 21
B. 30
C. 25
D. 35
Correct Answer: C. 25

5. How long must someone be a citizen to serve in the House?
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. No requirement
Correct Answer: B. 7 years

6. How is representation in the House determined?
A. Equally among all states
B. By state legislatures
C. By population
D. By land area
Correct Answer: C. By population

7. How many members are there currently in the House of Representatives?
A. 100
B. 435
C. 250
D. 52
Correct Answer: B. 435

8. How many senators does each state have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Based on population
Correct Answer: B. Two

9. What is the minimum age requirement to become a senator?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
Correct Answer: B. 30

10. How many years must someone be a citizen to become a senator?
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years
Correct Answer: C. 9 years

11. Before the 17th Amendment, how were senators selected?
A. By the president
B. By popular vote
C. By governors
D. By state legislatures
Correct Answer: D. By state legislatures

12. What power is specifically granted to the House of Representatives?
A. Ratifying treaties
B. Confirming judges
C. Impeaching federal officials
D. Appointing the president
Correct Answer: C. Impeaching federal officials

13. Who presides over a presidential impeachment trial?
A. The Vice President
B. The Senate Majority Leader
C. The Speaker of the House
D. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Correct Answer: D. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

14. If no presidential candidate wins a majority of the Electoral College, who decides the election?
A. The Senate
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The House of Representatives
Correct Answer: D. The House of Representatives

15. All revenue bills must originate in which body?
A. The Senate
B. The Supreme Court
C. The House of Representatives
D. The Treasury Department
Correct Answer: C. The House of Representatives

16. What is the term “power of the purse” related to?
A. Control of elections
B. Control of military
C. Control of government spending and taxation
D. Control of public speeches
Correct Answer: C. Control of government spending and taxation

17. Which body ratifies treaties?
A. House of Representatives
B. Senate
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Correct Answer: B. Senate

18. What vote is required in the Senate to ratify a treaty?
A. Simple majority
B. 2/3 vote
C. Unanimous
D. 3/4 vote
Correct Answer: B. 2/3 vote

19. Which branch confirms presidential appointments?
A. House
B. Senate
C. Supreme Court
D. Cabinet
Correct Answer: B. Senate

20. Why are there two houses of Congress, historically speaking?
A. To increase efficiency
B. Due to disagreement between large and small states
C. To mirror British Parliament
D. To give more power to the president
Correct Answer: B. Due to disagreement between large and small states

21. What did large states support during the Constitutional Convention?
A. Equal representation
B. The New Jersey Plan
C. The Virginia Plan
D. The British Plan
Correct Answer: C. The Virginia Plan

22. What did the Great Compromise establish?
A. A single house
B. Two houses with different types of representation
C. State-run legislatures
D. One federal chamber
Correct Answer: B. Two houses with different types of representation

23. Why are senators given longer terms than representatives?
A. To allow more campaign time
B. To make the Senate more responsive
C. To provide insulation from public opinion
D. To reduce corruption
Correct Answer: C. To provide insulation from public opinion

24. What is the term length for a U.S. senator?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. Lifetime
Correct Answer: C. 6 years

25. Why is the House given the power to initiate revenue bills?
A. Because they are less educated
B. Because they are closer to the people
C. Because they have longer terms
D. Because they are elected by state legislatures
Correct Answer: B. Because they are closer to the people

Section C

1. How many branches does the national government have under the principle of separation of powers?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. One
Answer: C. Three

2. Which branch of government is discussed first in the U.S. Constitution?
A. Judicial
B. Executive
C. Legislative
D. Administrative
Answer: C. Legislative

3. What is the main function of the legislative branch?
A. Enforcing laws
B. Interpreting laws
C. Making laws
D. Vetoing laws
Answer: C. Making laws

4. Which Article of the Constitution outlines the executive branch?
A. Article 1
B. Article 3
C. Article 5
D. Article 2
Answer: D. Article 2

5. What does Article 3 of the Constitution primarily describe?
A. The legislative process
B. The president's duties
C. The judicial branch
D. The Bill of Rights
Answer: C. The judicial branch

6. Who has the power to impeach the president?
A. Senate
B. House of Representatives
C. Supreme Court
D. Vice President
Answer: B. House of Representatives

7. What fraction of the Senate must vote to remove the president from office after impeachment?
A. 1/2
B. 3/4
C. 2/3
D. 1/3
Answer: C. 2/3

8. How can Congress override a presidential veto?
A. With a simple majority in the House
B. With a 2/3 vote in both houses
C. By asking the Supreme Court
D. By public referendum
Answer: B. With a 2/3 vote in both houses

9. What is one way the executive branch checks the legislative branch?
A. Declaring laws unconstitutional
B. Impeaching senators
C. Calling Congress into special session
D. Controlling congressional elections
Answer: C. Calling Congress into special session

10. Who presides over a presidential impeachment trial in the Senate?
A. The Vice President
B. The President
C. The Chief Justice
D. The Speaker of the House
Answer: C. The Chief Justice

11. What can the president do to cancel judgments made by courts?
A. Issue a veto
B. Call for a retrial
C. Pardon the convicted person
D. Override with executive order
Answer: C. Pardon the convicted person

12. What is a judicial check on the legislative branch?
A. Investigating laws
B. Appointing lawmakers
C. Declaring laws unconstitutional
D. Vetoing laws
Answer: C. Declaring laws unconstitutional

Wednesday, May 7, 2025

Polity Quiz 3

Section A

1. Which country's constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble?
A) India
B) France
C) America
D) Britain
Correct Answer: C) America

2. The Preamble serves as which of the following for the Constitution?
A) Appendix
B) Preface
C) Amendment
D) Schedule
Correct Answer: B) Preface

3. Who referred to the Preamble as the ‘identity card of the Constitution’?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) N.A. Palkhivala
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Rajendra Prasad
Correct Answer: B) N.A. Palkhivala

4. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on which historic resolution?
A) Nehru Resolution
B) Poona Pact
C) Objectives Resolution
D) Fundamental Duties
Correct Answer: C) Objectives Resolution

5. Who drafted and moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly?
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C) N.A. Palkhivala
D) Pandit Nehru
Correct Answer: D) Pandit Nehru

6. When was the Preamble amended to include the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’?
A) 1950
B) 1976
C) 1947
D) 1984
Correct Answer: B) 1976

7. Which Constitutional Amendment Act amended the Preamble in 1976?
A) 40th
B) 42nd
C) 44th
D) 52nd
Correct Answer: B) 42nd

8. According to the Preamble, who is the source of authority for the Indian Constitution?
A) Parliament
B) Judiciary
C) The President
D) The People of India
Correct Answer: D) The People of India

9. Which of the following is not mentioned in the objectives listed in the Preamble?
A) Justice
B) Liberty
C) Sovereignty
D) Fraternity
Correct Answer: C) Sovereignty

10. How many objectives are explicitly stated in the Preamble?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Correct Answer: C) Four
(Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity)

11. On what date was the Constitution of India adopted, as mentioned in the Preamble?
A) August 15, 1947
B) January 26, 1950
C) November 26, 1949
D) October 2, 1948
Correct Answer: C) November 26, 1949

12. Which of the following is not a term used to describe the nature of the Indian State in the Preamble?
A) Federal
B) Socialist
C) Secular
D) Democratic
Correct Answer: A) Federal

Section B

1. Who referred to the Preamble as the ‘horoscope of our sovereign democratic republic’?
A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. K.M. Munshi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Correct Answer: B. K.M. Munshi

2. In which case did the Supreme Court first state that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
A. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
B. LIC of India case (1995)
C. Berubari Union case (1960)
D. Minerva Mills case (1980)
Correct Answer: C. Berubari Union case (1960)

3. What did the Supreme Court say about the Preamble in the Berubari Union case?
A. It is enforceable in court
B. It is a source of legislative power
C. It shows the general purposes of the Constitution
D. It cannot be amended
Correct Answer: C. It shows the general purposes of the Constitution

4. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court declare the Preamble to be part of the Constitution?
A. Golaknath case
B. Kesavananda Bharati case
C. Berubari Union case
D. LIC of India case
Correct Answer: B. Kesavananda Bharati case

5. According to the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Constitution must be interpreted in light of:
A. Judicial opinions
B. International laws
C. The Directive Principles
D. The Preamble
Correct Answer: D. The Preamble

6. What was held again in the LIC of India case (1995)?
A. The Preamble is not legally binding
B. The Preamble is not part of the Constitution
C. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution
D. The Preamble restricts the legislature
Correct Answer: C. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution

7. When was the Preamble inserted into the Constitution?
A. Before the Constitution was drafted
B. After the Constitution was adopted
C. Simultaneously with the Constitution
D. By the 42nd Amendment
Correct Answer: B. After the Constitution was adopted

8. What is the legal nature of the Preamble?
A. Enforceable by courts
B. Grants power to the judiciary
C. Source of executive powers
D. Non-justiciable
Correct Answer: D. Non-justiciable

9. What did the Supreme Court say about amending the Preamble in the Kesavananda Bharati case?
A. It cannot be amended
B. It can be amended except for basic features
C. Only Parliament can amend it
D. It is automatically updated
Correct Answer: B. It can be amended except for basic features

10. Under which Article is the Preamble considered amendable?
A. Article 356
B. Article 352
C. Article 368
D. Article 370
Correct Answer: C. Article 368

11. Which Amendment added the words “Socialist, Secular, and Integrity” to the Preamble?
A. 44th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 26th Amendment
Correct Answer: B. 42nd Amendment

Sunday, May 4, 2025

Polity Quiz 2

Section A

1. Why is the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) known as the 'Mini-Constitution'?
A. It reduced the powers of the judiciary
B. It introduced a new part to the Constitution
C. It made a large number of important changes
D. It changed the Preamble

Correct Answer: C. It made a large number of important changes

2. In which year did the Supreme Court rule on the Kesavananda Bharati case?
A. 1949
B. 1973
C. 1976
D. 2019

Correct Answer: B. 1973

3. According to the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, what can Parliament not alter under Article 368?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles
C. Basic Structure of the Constitution
D. Preamble

Correct Answer: C. Basic Structure of the Constitution

4. How many Articles did the original Constitution of 1949 contain?
A. 448
B. 22
C. 395
D. 8

Correct Answer: C. 395

5. How many Parts did the original Constitution have?
A. 22
B. 25
C. 12
D. 8

Correct Answer: A. 22

6. From which Act is the structural part of the Indian Constitution mainly derived?
A. Indian Independence Act, 1947
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909
D. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

Correct Answer: B. Government of India Act, 1935

7. Which country inspired the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
A. Britain
B. Ireland
C. USA
D. Canada

Correct Answer: C. USA

8. From which country did India derive the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. USA
B. Ireland
C. Canada
D. Germany

Correct Answer: B. Ireland

9. The principle of Cabinet Government in India is borrowed from which Constitution?
A. American Constitution
B. British Constitution
C. Canadian Constitution
D. Australian Constitution

Correct Answer: B. British Constitution

10. Who described the Indian Constitution as "quasi-federal"?
A. Granville Austin
B. Ivor Jennings
C. K.C. Wheare
D. Morris Jones

Correct Answer: C. K.C. Wheare

11. Which of the following was not directly borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935?
A. Emergency Powers
B. Public Service Commissions
C. Preamble
D. Federal Scheme

Correct Answer: C. Preamble

12. What term did Granville Austin use to describe Indian federalism?
A. Bargaining federalism
B. Quasi-federal
C. Federation with a centralising tendency
D. Co-operative federalism

Correct Answer: D. Co-operative federalism

Section B

1. What are the three forms of justice mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A. Social, legal, and economic
B. Political, social, and cultural
C. Social, economic, and political
D. Economic, religious, and cultural
Answer: C. Social, economic, and political

2. Social justice primarily seeks to eliminate:
A. Economic inequality
B. Political instability
C. Social distinctions and privileges
D. Bureaucratic corruption
Answer: C. Social distinctions and privileges

3. Economic justice means:
A. Equal political rights for all
B. Elimination of social evils
C. No discrimination based on economic factors
D. Reservation for all castes
Answer: C. No discrimination based on economic factors

4. The concept of distributive justice combines:
A. Civil and political justice
B. Liberty and equality
C. Social and economic justice
D. Economic and political justice
Answer: C. Social and economic justice

5. The ideal of justice in the Indian Constitution was inspired by which event?
A. American Civil War
B. French Revolution
C. Russian Revolution
D. Indian Freedom Struggle
Answer: C. Russian Revolution

6. According to the Preamble, liberty includes all of the following except:
A. Thought and expression
B. Belief and faith
C. Worship
D. Property ownership
Answer: D. Property ownership

7. What is the nature of liberty as per the Indian Constitution?
A. Absolute and unrestricted
B. License to act freely
C. Restricted by constitutional limits
D. Only for the privileged classes
Answer: C. Restricted by constitutional limits

8. From where did the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble originate?
A. American Revolution
B. French Revolution
C. Industrial Revolution
D. Russian Revolution
Answer: B. French Revolution

9. Which of the following Articles does not directly ensure civic equality?
A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 18
D. Article 326
Answer: D. Article 326

10. Political equality is ensured by which Article that allows adult suffrage?
A. Article 325
B. Article 326
C. Article 15
D. Article 17
Answer: B. Article 326

11. Which Article abolishes untouchability?
A. Article 14
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 18
Answer: C. Article 17

12. Article 39 of the Directive Principles seeks to ensure:
A. Equal political rights only
B. Reservation in education
C. Equal means of livelihood and equal pay for men and women
D. Right to free speech
Answer: C. Equal means of livelihood and equal pay for men and women